Prepare for the the SAT**, PSAT/NMSQT* and the ACT tests

"Luck is what happens when preparation meets opportunity."- Elmer Letterman.

Boost your PSAT/NMSQT/SAT/ACT scores by being fully prepared for test day and conquer any weak areas you may have in verbal, math and writing skills. Our test preparation guides contain vital information on the types of questions you will face as well as helpful strategies to make your test day go as smoothly as possible. There are also practice questions in the guide that are similar to questions found on the tests. These questions were not taken from the tests but are written in the style used.

The scores from these tests help the college admissions offices decide whether or not to accept your application. Therefore, the tests are an important factor in the success of your post-high school life, and worth preparing for as best you can.

PSAT/NMSQT TEST PREPARATION
SAT TEST PREPARATION
ACT TEST PREPARATION

PSAT/NMSQT TEST PREPARATION

The Preliminary SAT/National Merit Scholarship Qualifying Test (PSAT/NMSQT) is the best indicator of how well you will do on the SAT. It is a two hour test given to high-school students once a year in October. Almost all students take the PSAT/NMSQT during their junior year, but many students also take the PSAT/NMSQT during their sophomore year.

The PSAT/NMSQT measures the critical reading, math problem solving, and writing skills that you have developed through life. It does not measure creativity. It is designed to predict how well you will perform on the SAT and help you get an early start on preparing for college.

Remember: top PSAT/NMSQT scorers in each state become semi-finalists for National Merit Scholarships.**

The National Merit Scholarship Corporation, is an annual competition that awards approximately 7,000 scholarships for undergraduate study. The cut-off point for semi-finalists and commended scholars varies from state to state but a typical semi-finalist scores in the top one percent of students in their state. Commended scholars typically score in the top four percent. While most of the (approximately) 15,000 semi-finalists become finalists, only half the finalists will receive National Merit Scholarships. Only scores from the PSAT/NMSQT taken in your junior year are considered for the National Merit Scholarship competition.

Taking the PSAT/NMSQT will allow you to:

  • compare yourself with other college-bound students around the country
  • learn what the SAT will be like and forecast your scores
  • Assess any weaknesses you may have in your verbal, math, and writing scores.

On-line registration is not available as the PSAT/NMSQT is administered by high schools. The score reports will be mailed to your high school principal and are usually available to students after Thanksgiving.

The questions asked on your PSAT/NMSQT will be at the same level of difficulty as the SAT. Here are a couple of sample questions. More questions can be found on the SAT Test Preparation pages.

MATH QUESTION.

In December, Elizabeth sold 30 percent more satellite TV subscriptions than she had in November. In January, she sold 20 percent more satellite TV subscriptions than she had in December. The number of satellite TV subscriptions Elizabeth sold was what percent greater in January than in November?
(A) 50
(B) 54
(C) 56
(D) 62
(E) 60

Answer: C.

Explanation: When you have a percent problem and a number is not provided, always choose 100 because it is easy to work with. As you are not given a number for how many subscriptions Elizabeth sold in November, choose 100 as your number.

Therefore, you can say Elizabeth sold 100 subscriptions in November. In December, she sold 30 percent more subscriptions than in November so the number she sold in December is 100 plus 30 percent of 100, therefore 130. In January, Elizabeth sold 20 percent more subscriptions than she sold in December. Therefore, if she sold 130 in December and 20 percent of 130 is 26 then 130 plus 26 is 156, so she must have sold 156 subscriptions in January. The percent that the number of subscriptions sold in January, 156, is greater than the number sold in November, 100, is 56 percent. Therefore the correct answer is (C).

VERBAL QUESTIONS

Analogies.......

SNAKE:SLITHER::
(A) egg:hatch
(B) wolf:howl
(C) rabbit:hop
(D) turtle:snap
(E) tarantula:bite

Answer: C

Explanation: Analogies test your vocabulary and your understanding of word relationships. The pair of words in capital letters are related in some way. Your task is to identify the word pair that is related in the same way as the capitalized pair. Therefore, consider how snake is related to slither. A snake slithers to get around. An egg does not hatch to get around and a wolf does not howl to get around. However, a rabbit does hop to get around, therefore, answer (C), is correct.

Sentence completion.....

Anthropologists have ________________ that early humans may have depended on their sense of smell to _________________ them in communication and the acquisition of food.
(A) decided..control
(B) noticed..affect
(C) hypothesized..assist
(D) suggested..prolong
(E) reflected..thwart

Answer: C

Explanation: You can predict that the first blank is going to mean something like ‘theorized,’ and that the second is going to be something like ‘aid.’ You can eliminate (A) because control doesn’t make sense in the second blank. (B) falls short because anthropologists couldn’t have ‘noticed’ -- a word that implies observation -- something that happened centuries ago. (D) doesn’t work because prolong means to lengthen or draw out -- it has nothing to do with communicating or acquiring food. (E) thwart means to frustrate or defeat, which is the opposite of the word you’re looking for. Therefore (C) hypothesized..assist is the best choice.

SAT TEST PREPARATION

The Scholastic Assessment Test (SAT) is an aptitude test and an admission requirement of the college you are interested in attending.

An aptitude test is a measure of intellectual ability. As such, the SAT I is a measure of your capability in math and English because these abilities relate to some of the things you will need to know to be successful in college. No test can measure all aspects of intelligence. However, some form of admissions testing is necessary and GPA testing is unfair insofar as it would be unfair to admit students who get high grades from easy classes over students who get lower grades in harder classes.

Remember that colleges do look at other things when making admission decisions -- like your high school record, essays, recommendations, interviews, and extracurricular activities.

Your SAT I score can tell admissions staff how you compare with other students who took the test. All scores are reported on a 200-800 scale. If the average score for math and English is about 500, then college admissions staff would know you scored about as well as half the people who took the test.

Admissions staff use both percentiles and score ranges to evaluate how you performed in the test. Colleges use SAT I scores to help estimate how well you are likely to do in your first year at college, although no test can predict with 100 percent accuracy what your grades will be in college.

The SAT I measures verbal and math reasoning abilities you’ve developed over the years. For example, some of the math questions can be answered correctly by using complex equations, but they can also be answered correctly if you can reason through the problem. Reading passages do not just ensure that you can read, they also test your ability to use extended reasoning in order to answer the questions related to the passage.

The SAT II is a set of more than 20 different tests focusing on specific disciplines such as literature, history, and biology, among others. The SAT II is different from the SAT I in that it is designed to measure what you know about specific disciplines. Many colleges require or recommend one or more of the subject tests alongside the SAT I scores.

You can prepare for the SAT by:

  • taking the PSAT/NMSQT,
  • reviewing sample questions,
  • understanding the directions and the format,
  • learning how to pace yourself and
  • understanding stress and how to overcome it on test day.

Before taking the SAT I: Reasoning Test or the SAT II: Subject Tests, become familiar with the organization of the test, the types of questions that are included, and what to expect on test day. We can help you there.

Commonly asked questions about the SAT:

How do I register for the SAT I or the SAT II?

You have to complete a registration form. You can do that by:

On-line Registrationat www.collegeboard.org. Pay by credit card and you can print off a receipt page with a registration number. Once you submit your registration on-line, it cannot be canceled. However, you can telephone to change your test date if the need arises.

You cannot register on-line if:

  • you want to test on a Sunday,
  • you live more than 75 miles from the nearest test center and you want to be tested nearer home
  • you’re testing under the SAT Services for Students with Disabilities Program, or
  • you’re taking the test in Taiwan

Mail Registration. The registration form and return envelope are available as the Registration Bulletin, available from your school counselor’s office. It contains test dates, registration deadlines, instructions, fees and other registration-related information.

Telephone Reregistration. Only available if you’ve registered for an SAT test before. You can reregister by phone on 1 800 SAT SCORE if you have a touch-tone phone and do not need customer assistance. The fee for telephone reregistration is $10 for each administration requested, plus test fees, plus a $13 Basic Registration/Reporting Fee. If you need customer assistance call 1 609 771 7600. If you are deaf or hard of hearing call 1 609 882 4118.

You will be asked for the following information when you call:

  • your name, date of birth, sex, social security number
  • five-digit test center code
  • four digit college or scholarships program code
  • credit card information (Visa, Mastercard or American Express)
  • for SAT II registration: the two digit test code and subject test

To change your test center, test date, or test call 1 609 771 7600 at least two and a half weeks before your test date and have your Visa, Mastercard, or American Express handy.

How much does the SAT cost?

The Basic Registration/Reporting Fee is $13 (all these figures were correct on October 17, 1999). This is a non-refundable fee. Included in the cost is the price of sending score reports to up to four colleges and scholarship programs, when included on the registration form.

The total SAT I cost, including the $13 Basic Registration/Reporting Fee, is $23.50

The total cost for the SAT II: Subject Tests is $13 plus: $11 for the Writing Test and/or $8 for the Language Tests with Listening $8 and/or $6 for all other Subject Tests.

For all other costs/fees information see www.collegeboard.org

High school juniors and seniors are eligible for fee waivers if they cannot afford SAT test fees. If you are eligible this may also qualify you for an application fee waiver at the colleges you are applying to. Applications for fee waivers are made through your school counselor. To register, mail a fee-waiver card with a completed registration form. You will not be able to register a fee-waiver application on-line or by telephone.

When is the SAT given?

The test is administered seven times a year -- usually in October, November, December, January, March, May and June -- on Saturday mornings.

Can I take the test on Sunday morning instead?

Sunday testing is available only for students who cannot take the test on Saturday because of religious observances. You must submit a letter of explanation from your cleric with your test application form, therefore, on-line registration is not available.

What do I take to the test center?

  • your admission ticket
  • two #2 pencils and an eraser
  • one piece of acceptable identification
  • an acceptable calculator (this applies ONLY if you are taking the SAT I, SAT II: Math Level IC or Math Level IIC tests.

You should not take:

  • a watch with an audible alarm
  • food or drink
  • scratch paper
  • notes, books, dictionaries
  • compasses, protractors, rulers, or any other aids
  • highlighters, colored pens or pencils
  • portable listening or recording devices (with or without earphones) or photographic equipment. (for SAT II Listening Tests acceptable cassette players with earphones are required)
  • cellular telephone or pager.

What is an admission ticket?

Your admission ticket will confirm that you are registered to take the test on a specific date, at a specific test center. You will need to take the ticket with you on test day. Be sure to check the information on your ticket is correct. If you do not receive your admission ticket at least one week before your test date, call 1 609 771 7600 and ask for your registration number as well as the name and address of your test center.

What would be acceptable identification?

  • your driver’s license with recognizable photo, or,
  • school identification card with recognizable photo, or,
  • valid passport with current, recognizable photo, or,
  • a brief physical description of yourself written on school stationery that you must sign in the presence of your principal or school counselor, who must also sign it.

Social security cards, credit cards (including those with photo), parent’s driver’s license and birth certificates are not acceptable forms of ID.

You will not be permitted to take the test if you do not take acceptable ID to the test center.**

What is an acceptable calculator?

Almost any four-function, scientific, or graphing calculator is acceptable for the SAT I or SAT II Math Level IC and Level IIC.

Hand-held minicomputers, laptop computers, electronic writing pads or pen input devices, pocket organizers, calculators with typewriter like keypads, calculators with paper tape, calculators that make a noise, or calculators that require an electrical outlet are not acceptable.

You willnotbe allowed to share calculators.

Although no questions on the SAT I require a calculator, it is recommended that you take a calculator on test day.

Some test questions on the SAT II: Math Level IC and Math Level IIC require a calculator. If you take these tests without a calculator, you will be at a disadvantage from those answering the questions with a calculator.

What is an acceptable cassette player?(This applies only if you are registered to take the SAT II: Language Test with Listening.)

An acceptable cassette player must be:

  • personal (with headphones where only you can hear the cassette.)
  • portable (it must fit in your hand)
  • battery-operated
  • using standard-size cassette (no mini or microcassettes)

What happens if I have a disability?

SAT Services for Students with Disabilities provide test modifications and accommodations (such as sign language interpreter or extra testing time) for students who have documented disabilities.

How is the SAT scored?

The different sections of the SAT are scored independently. You will receive a verbal score and a math score. Each score ranges from 200 to 800. The average for both is 500. Thus, the average total score is 1,000.

In addition to the scaled score, you will be assigned a percentile ranking, which gives the percentage of students with scores below yours. For example, if you correctly answer 48 of the 60 math questions, then you will score better than 90 percent of the other test takers.

Your score report will be mailed about three weeks after the test. If you requested that your scores be sent to colleges or scholarship programs, a report will be sent to each of them within three weeks after the test date. If you listed your high school number on the registration form, then they will also receive a copy of your score report.

If you want to cancel your scores after the test, ask the supervisor for a Request to Cancel Test Scores Form, complete it immediately, and return it to the test supervisor before leaving the room. However, be aware that once your request to cancel scores has been submitted, you cannot get them back. They will not be reported to you or your designated institutions.

What time does the test start?

Testing starts usually at 8.30am and ends about 12.30pm. Plan to arrive at the test center at least half an hour before. Although you will get a short break at the end of each hour of testing time it makes sense to use the washroom facilities before you start the test.

Tell me more about the SAT I.......

The SAT I is a three-hour test made up of seven sections:

  • three verbal sections: two 30 minute sections and one 15 minute section
  • three math sections: two 30 minute sections and one 15 minute section
  • one 30 minute ‘equating’ section, verbal or math.

You must work within each section of the test only for the time allotted. You won’t be able to return to a section once that section has ended. Nor can you leap ahead to get your favorite section out of the way early.

Although time is strictly limited on the SAT, working too quickly can damage your score. Many problems hinge on subtle points and most require careful reading. Getting the gist of what the question is asking is not enough. You might be surprised how easy it is to mis-read the problem or overlook a subtle point in the question.

The key to performing well in your SAT is not how many questions you can answer, but how many you can answer correctly.

If, during the test, you feel as though you’ve become obsessed with a particularly difficult question, learn to cut your losses and move on. All the questions are worth the same number of points, regardless of difficulty level. Therefore, the easiest way to answer a question correctly is to know the answer.

If you’re struggling to find the right answer, try to eliminate those answers you know are definitely wrong. Usually, only two of the answer choices might possibly be correct, the rest are fluff. This way the odds turn in your favor and if your guess is correct then you come out ahead with one full point. If you guess wrong then you lose a quarter of a point.

What kind of verbal questions are asked on the SAT I?

Analogies (19 questions)

  • analogy questions test your understanding of the relationships among words and ideas. You will be given one pair of words and, to answer correctly, you must choose another pair that is related in the same way.

Sentence Completion (19 questions)

  • sentence completion questions ask you to choose the best way to complete a sentence from which one or two words have been omitted. You should be able to recognize the logic, style and tone of the sentence in order to choose the answer that makes sense.

Critical Reading (40 questions)

  • critical reading questions measure your ability to read and think carefully about a single reading passage or a pair of related passages.

See our sample verbal questions for you to try.

What kind of math questions am I going to be asked on the SAT I?

  • 35 multiple-choice questions
  • 15 quantitative comparison questions emphasizing the concepts of equalities, inequalities, and estimation.
  • 10 student-produced response questions with no answer choices provided.

The math questions will include a range of concepts, including: addition, subtraction, multiplication, division, percent, data interpretation, odd/even numbers, prime numbers, divisibility, negative numbers, algebra, word problems, factoring, linear equations, inequalities, positive integer exponents, roots of numbers, sequences, geometry, area and circumference of polygon/circle, volume of a cube/cylinder, Pythagorean Theorem, properties of isosceles, equilateral, and right triangles, properties of parallel and perpendicular lines, coordinate geometry, and logical reasoning.

See our sample verbal questions for you to try.

Tell me more about the SAT II........

SAT II: Subject Tests are one-hour, multiple choice exams (except the writing test - which has a 20 minute essay section included) in a variety of high school subjects. Many colleges require or recommend one or more of the Subject Tests for admission or placement as they can help determine how well prepared you are for different college programs and advise you on course selection. Most selective colleges and the entire University of California system require the SAT I and three SAT IIs.

What Subject Tests are available?

  • Writing
  • American History and Social Studies
  • Physics
  • Math Level IIC *
  • Chemistry
  • French
  • German
  • Modern Hebrew
  • Chinese with Listening
  • Spanish
  • Latin
  • Literature
  • World History
  • Math Level IC *
  • Biology (Ecological/Molecular)
  • Korean with Listening
  • French with Listening
  • German with Listening
  • Italian
  • Japanese with Listening
  • Spanish with Listening
  • English Language Proficiency

* denotes calculator required.

What SAT II: Subject Tests should I take?

Many colleges demand that you take particular tests, usually the Writing Test and/or one of the Math Tests. Some schools will give you a choice, in which case take the ones you will do well in.

How is the SAT II scored?

Like the SAT I, the SAT II: Subject Tests are scores on a 200-800 scale. The hard questions are worth the same as the easy questions. When registering for the SAT II one of your options is the “Score Choice” which allows you to decide whether or not to send your scores to colleges after you find out how you did. This way, if you’re unhappy with a score, you do not have to send it to your designated colleges.

If you choose score choice, you will not get the opportunity to send four reports to colleges provided as part of your Basic Registration and Reporting Fee. If you decide to release your scores, there is an additional charge to send scores.

If you are a senior applying for early decision, you should be aware that opting for Score Choice may cause a delay as it takes up to six weeks for scores to reach college and scholarships programs, therefore causing you to miss application deadlines.**

Are there any handy tips that I should know before I write the exam?

Yes! Make yourself aware of what to expect, become familiar with the organization of the tests and test-day procedures. Perhaps more importantly, if you familiarize yourself with the test directions, you can save yourself valuable time on the day.

Remember, you get one point for a correct answer and you lose a quarter of a point for a wrong answer. If you do not answer a question you neither gain nor lose points. If you can rule out one or more answers that are definitely wrong, your chances of guessing the correct answer improve.

Pay close attention to your answer sheet. The answer sheet is machine-scored, therefore it cannot read any human errors, doodles, or poorly marked sheets.

SAT SAMPLE VERBAL QUESTIONS SAT VOCABULARY BUILDER SAT SAMPLE MATH QUESTIONS

Try our sample verbal questions.......

**Strategies for Analogies**

  • create a sentence in your mind that uses the two capitalized words,
  • learn to recognize common types of analogies,
  • eliminate answer pairs that are clearly wrong,
  • beware of possibly correct answers that appear in reverse order
  • if more than one choice appears possible, analyze the words again,
  • consider alternative meanings of words, as well as alternative parts of speech,
  • if you do not know the meaning of a word, try to recall if you’ve ever heard it in an expression. The context of the expression may suggest the meaning of the word,
  • beware of obvious answers. They may only be there to mislead you.

Question:
WHELP:DOG
(A) cat..catnip
(B) child..human being
(C) school..fish
(D) veterinarian..patient
(E) mule..horse

Answer:B

Explanation:A whelp is a young dog just as a child is a young human being. None of the other answer relationships match the same way. A veterinarian is not a young patient! A mule is not a young horse!

Question:
CLUB:GOLF
(A) type..book
(B) ball..soccer
(C) glove..baseball
(D) racket..tennis
(E) board..chess

Answer:D

Explanation:A club is used to play golf. However, this relationship would only eliminate answer choice A. A more specific paraphrase is: a club is used to strike a ball in the game of golf. Similarly, a racket is used to strike a ball in the game of tennis.

Question:
EXORCISM:DEMON
(A) matriculation..induction
(B) banishment..member
(C) qualm..angel
(D) heuristic..method
(E) manifesto..spirit

Answer:B

Explanation:This is a difficult one to solve. Eliminate any answer choice that reminds you in any way, of demon as these were put here to mis-lead you. A demon is a spirit so this eliminates (E). Next, choice (C) angel, might remind you of demon, so eliminate this one also. To exorcise a demon means to drive it away. Similarly, to banish a member of a group also means to drive someone away.

Question:
COFFER:VALUABLES
(A) mountain..avalanche
(B) book..paper
(C) vault..trifles
(D) sanctuary..refuge
(E) sea..waves

Answer:D

Explanation:A coffer is a container in which to store valuables. Similarly, a sanctuary is by definition a place of refuge.

Strategies for Sentence Completion

  • before looking at the answers, try to consider the sentence with words that make sense,
  • do not rush your selection. Consider all the answers before deciding,
  • use the context of nearby words to figure out unknown words,
  • do not overlook the reversing effect of negative words (or prefixes) like ‘not’ or ‘un-’
  • if you do not understand the meaning of a word, try to break it down into prefixes, roots, or suffixes
  • eliminate choices in double-blank questions if the first word alone does not make sense in the sentence,
  • let transition words like ‘although’ and ‘likewise’ help suggest the best answer

Question:
His earliest novel, though undeniably _____________ in content, was ____________ work which influenced fiction writers for the next several decades.
(A) peculiar..a symbolic
(B) sophomoric..a seminal
(C) entrenched..a consummate
(D) graphic..a maniacal
(E) stupefying..an anomalous

Answer:B

Explanation:This one is easier to answer if you start with the second blank because you can see it should be something like ‘influential’. Seminal comes the closest, meaning ‘containing the seeds of later development.’ You can predict that the word in the first blank is going to be a bit negative and contrasting with the rest of the sentence. Sophomoric, meaning ‘immature’ fits the bill. (A), although tempting, would be incorrect because a symbolic work would not necessarily influence writers for decades.

Question:
His novels are ______________ ; he uses a long circumlocution when a direct coupling of a simple subject and verb would be best.
(A) prolix
(B) pedestrian
(C) succinct
(D) vapid
(E) risqué

Answer:A

Explanation:The sentence has no linking words such as ‘because’ or ‘although’. Hence, the phrase following the semicolon is in apposition to the missing word - it defines or further clarifies the missing word. Writing filled with circumlocutions is aptly described as prolix.

Question:

Many species of intertidal fish have developed ___________ abilities that enable them to ___________ a particular location, generally a tide pool, that provides suitable refuge.
(A) foraging..do without
(B) compensatory..aspire to
(C) natural..vanish from
(D) singular..escape from
(E) homing..return to

Answer:E

Explanation:Given that the tide pool provides suitable refuge, it is likely that the intertidal fish would seek to return to it. In such a case, they would be helped by the development of a homing instinct.

Strategies for Critical Reading

  • base your answers to the question solely on what is stated or implied in the passages,
  • read all the text,
  • skip questions you do not know and return to them after answering the easy questions
  • first and last sentences of each paragraph are critical,
  • use the line references to locate the right spot in a passage,
  • read the passage before reading the questions,
  • do not waste time memorizing details

Read this passage then answer the question:

    Given the persistent and intransigent nature of the American race system, which proved quite impervious to black attacks, Du Bois in his speeches and writings moved from one proposed solution to another, and the salience of various parts of his philosophy changed as his perceptions of the needs and strategies of black America shifted over time. Aloof and autonomous in his personality, Du Bois did not hesitate to depart markedly from whatever was the current mainstream of black thinking when he perceived that the conventional wisdom being enunciated by black spokesmen was proving inadequate to the task of advancing the race. His willingness to seek different solutions often placed him well in advance of his contemporaries, as this, combined with a strong-willed, even arrogant personality made his career as a black leader essentially a series of stormy conflicts.

Thus Du Bois first achieved his role as a major black leader in the controversy that arose over the program of Booker T. Washington, the most prominent and influential black leader at the opening of the twentieth century. Amidst the wave of lynchings, disfranchisement, and segregation laws, Washington, seeking the good will of powerful whites, taught blacks not to protest against discrimination, but to elevate themselves through industrial education, hard work, and property accumulation; then, they would ultimately obtain recognition of their citizenship rights. At first Du Bois agreed with this gradualist strategy, but in 1903 with the publication of his most influential book, Souls of Black Folk, he became the chief leader of the onslaught against Washington that polarized the black community into two wings - the "conservative" supporters of Washington and his "radical" critics.

(From W.E.B. du Bois: Protagonist of the Afro-American Protest” by Elliot Rudwick, in Black Leaders of the Twentieth Century, edited by John Hope Franklin and August Meier. University of Illinois Press)

Question 1:The author’s primary purpose in the passage is to....
(A) explain how Du Bois was influenced by Washington
(B) compare the personalities of Du Bois and Washington
(C) explain why Du Bois gained power in the black community
(D) describe Du Bois’ role in early twentieth century black leadership
(E) correct the misconception that Du Bois shunned polarization

Question 2:The author’s attitude towards Du Bois’ departure from conventional black policies can best be described as:
(A) skeptical
(B) derisive
(C) shocked
(D) approving
(E) resigned

Question 3:Which of the following statements about W.E.B. Du Bois does the passage best support?
(A) He sacrificed the proven strategies of earlier black leaders to his craving for political novelty.
(B) Preferring conflict to harmony, he followed a disruptive course that alienated him from the bulk of his followers.
(C) He proved unable to change with the times in mounting fresh attacks against white racism.
(D) He relied on the fundamental benevolence of the white population for the eventual success of his movement.
(E) Once an adherent of Washington’s policies, he ultimately lost patience with them for their inefficacy.

Answers:
Question 1: D
Question 2: D
Question 3: E

Explanations:
Question 1: The author first discusses Du Bois in relationship to black leaders in general and then provides the specific example of his relationship to Booker T. Washington.
Question 2: His attitude can best be described as approving because although the author points out that Du Bois’ methods led him into conflict, he describes Du Bois as “well in advance of his contemporaries” and stresses his motives for departing from the mainstream were admirable.
Question 3: The last sentence points out that Du Bois originally agreed with Washington’s program.

SAT Vocabulary Builder

The best way to develop a powerful vocabulary is to read extensively and well. However, it is possible to fine-tune your vocabulary by using flashcards. Here is a list of some of the most commonly used words found in SAT verbal tests:

abbreviate:to shorten; to reduce by contraction or omission
antagonist:opponent; combatant; adversary
assiduous:devoted; attentive; unremitting
asylum:sanctuary; place of refuge and protection
benevolent:disposed to do good; kind; charitable
censure:to find fault with; condemn; to blame
collaborate:join forces; cooperate
conformist:one who conforms or complies
convergence:joining or coming together of separate elements
deleterious:hurtful; noxious; destructive
demagogue:a leader of the rabble; mob orator
empathy:understanding and entering into another’s feelings
ephemeral:beginning and ending in a day, momentary, fleeting
florid:bright in color, flushed red
frugal:economical in the use or appropriation of flowers
gaudy:ostentatiously fine but tawdry
hackneyed:to make trite or commonplace
integrity:honesty; free from corrupting influence or motive
jubilation:rejoicing, exultation
lobbyist:someone who tries to persuade legislators to vote for bills they favor
mundane:commonplace; ordinary
nonchalant:indifferent; careless
orator:public speaker; one who is eloquent
precocious:mature before proper or natural time
pretentious:make claim to be important; tawdry or vulgar display
prosaic:dull; uninteresting; pertaining to prose
querulous:given to quarreling
rancorous:showing deep-seated resentment
renovation:repaired; renewed
resilient:rebounding; recoiling
sagacity:shrewdness; wisdom; acuteness of senses
spurious:false; not genuine
superficial:lying on the surface; shallow; not deep
tenacious:holding fast; inclined to retain possession
venerable:deserving of honor and respect
vindicate:defend; avenge; to assert a right to
wary:cautious of danger; circumspect; careful

Try our sample math questions.......

Strategies for Multiple-Choice

  • read the question thoroughly and select the best answer that fits
  • learn in advance all the critical definitions, formulas, and concepts that appear in common questions,
  • use the test booklet, not your answer sheet, for any scratch work
  • spend less time on the easy questions, this allows more time for the harder questions
  • detailed calculations should not be necessary. Look for a trick or a shortcut if the question seems time consuming
  • if you want to guess an answer, choose one and try to work out ‘in reverse’ if the answer is correct.

Question:The weight of a bag of mangoes plus four more than twice that weight equals 40 pounds. How much, in pounds, does the bag of mangoes weigh?
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 14
(D) 16
(E) 20

Answer:B

Explanation:Start with C: assume the bag weighs 14 pounds. (Why start with C? If you start with the middle number and your answer is too high, you can choose a lower number; if your answer is too low, you can choose a higher number.) four more than twice 14 is 32; 14 plus 32 is 46 which is too high. Try B, a lower number , assume the bag weighs 12 pounds. Four more than twice 12 is 28; 12 plus 28 is 40.

Question:If Mark can shape three surfboards in 50 minutes, how many surfboards can he shape in five hours?
(A) 16
(B) 17
(C) 18
(D) 19
(E) 20

Answer:C

Explanation:As the time increases so does the number of shaped surfboards. Hence, we set up a direct proportion. First, convert 5 hours into minutes: 5 hours = 5 x 60 minutes = 300 minutes. Next, let x be the number of surfboards shaped in 5 hours. Finally, forming the proportion yields


3/50 = x/300
3(300)/50 = x
18 = x

Question:If n is an odd integer, which one of the following is an even integer?

Answer:D

Explanation:Chose an odd integer for n, lets say, 1 and substitute it into each answer choice. In choice A, 3(1) + 2 = 5, which is not an even integer. Choice B, is not an even integer, nor is C and Choice E, the nn = 1(1) = 1, is not an even integer.

Question:If a, b, and c are consecutive integers and a<b<c, which of the following must be true?
I. b - c = 1
II. abc/3 is an integer
III. a + b + c is even

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II only
(E) II and III only

Answer:B

Explanation:Let, x, x+1, x + 2 stand for the consecutive integers a, b, and c, in that order. Plugging this into statement I yields b - c = (x + 1) - (x + 2) = -1. Hence, statement I is false. For statement II, since a, b, and c are three consecutive integers, one of them must be divisible by 3. Hence, abc/3 is an integer, and statement II is true. As to statement III, suppose a is even, b is odd, and c is even. Then a + b is odd since even + odd = odd. Hence, a + b + c = (a + b) + c = (odd) + even = odd. Thus statement III is not necessarily true.

Question:If (x + 3)/(x - 3) = y, what is the value of x in terms of y?
(A) 3 - y
(B) 3/y
(C) (2 + y)/(y - 2)
(D) (-3y - 3)/(1 - y)
(E) 3y/2

Answer:D

Explanation:First, multiply both sides of the equation by x - 3: (x - 3)(x = 3)/(x - 3) = (x 3)y. Cancel the (x - 3’s) on the left side of the equation: x + 3 = (x - 3)y. Cancel the y:x + 3 = xy - 3y. Subtract xy and 3 from both sides: x - xy = -3y -3. Factor out the x on the left side of the equation: x(1 - y) = -3y -3. Finally, divide both sides of the equation by 1 - y:x = (-3y -3)/(1 - y).

Strategies for Quantitative Comparisions

  • consider values that are fractional (between 0 and 1), zeros, negative, or non-integer,
  • factor out, then cancel, any common expressions or quantities in both columns A and B
  • these questions should be simpler than the multiple choice, look closely, is the answer apparent without any working out?
  • write on the diagrams in the test booklet to clarify any lengths, values, angles etc.
  • choose the answer that seems most likely, rather than solving the question,
  • simplify as much as possible
  • there are only four choices so do not ever guess the answer is Choice E!

Question:
5 < xy < 20 and x and y are integers
Column A Column B
xy x + y

(A) the quantity in Column A is greater
(B) the quantity in Column B is greater
(C) the two quantities are equal
(D) the relationship cannot be determined

Answer:D

Explanation:Since x and y are integers, xy must be an integer, and the problem states that xy is between 5 and 20. If for example, xy = 6, then the values of x and y could be 6 and 1, 2 and 3, -6 and -1, or -2 and -3. For these values, x + y is greater than 6 and in some cases x + y is less than 6. Since the relationship between xy and x + y varies, depending on which values of x and y are taken, the relationship between the quantity in Column A and the quantity in Column B cannot be determined.

Question:
x is a positive integer
Column A Column B
The number of distinct prime factors of x The number of distinct prime factors of x cubed

(A) the quantity in Column A is greater
(B) the quantity in Column B is greater
(C) the two quantities are equal
(D) the relationship cannot be determined

Answer:C

Explanation:Plug in the first three numbers (never more than three) from a class of numbers eg. x = 1, 2, and 3. If x = 1, then x has no prime factors, likewise for x cubed. Next, if x = 2, then x has one prime factor, 2, and x cubed equals 8 also has one prime factor, 2. Finally, if x = 3, then x has one prime factor, 3, and x cubed equals 27 also has one prime factor, 3. In all three cases, the columns are equal.

Strategies for Student Produced Response

  • there are no penalties for wrong answers in this section so if you do not know the answer, guess.
  • negative numbers are not possible in this section,
  • if an answer is a repeating decimal, just enter as many decimals as will fit in the grid,
  • do not try to enter mixed numbers, eg, if your answer is 3 1/2 enter 3.5 instead.
  • you may enter a fraction if it is not a mixed number, eg 2/3.

Question:If Andy can mow the lawn in 30 minutes and, with the help of his friend Garrett, they can mow the lawn in 20 minutes, how long would it take Garrett working alone to mow the lawn?

You are not given answer choices for these questions.

Answer:One hour.

Explanation:The formula for work problems is Work = Rate x Time. The amount of work done is usually one unit. Hence, the formula becomes 1 = R x T.


Solving this for R give R = 1/T
1/20 = 1/30 + 1/T
1/20 - 1/30 = 1/T
(30 - 20)/(30)(20) = 1/T
1/60 = 1/T
T = 60 minutes.

Question:How many ounces of a solution that is 30 percent salt must be added to a 50-ounce solution that is 10 percent salt so that the resulting solution is 20 percent salt?

You are not given answer choices for these questions.

Answer:50

Explanation:Let x be the ounces of the 30 percent solution. Then 30%x is the amount of salt in that solution. The final solution will be 50 + x ounces, and its concentration of salt will be 20%(50 + x). The original solution plus the concentration of salt in the added solution must equal the concentration of salt in the resulting solution: 10%(50) + 30%x = 20%(50 + x). Multiply this equation by 100 to clear the percent symbol and then solving for x yields x = 50.

Formula Review
Note: The ^ symbol is used to indicate power of.

Interest = Amount x Time x Rate

Discount = Cost x Rate of discount

x = 1/2a[-b +- (b^2)^1/2 - 4ac] (quadratic formula)

Distance = Speed x Time

a^2 + b^2 = c^2, where a and b are the lengths of the legs and c is the length of the hypotenuse of a right triangle (Pythagorean theorem)

Diameter of a circle = 2 x Radius

Area of a square = s^2

Area of a rectangle = lw

Area of a triangle = 1/2bh

Area of a circle = pi * r^2

Area of a parallelogram = bh

Area of a trapezoid = 1/2(b1 + b2)h

Circumference of a circle = pi d

Perimeter of a square = 4s

Perimeter of a rectangle = 2(l + w)

Distance between points (x, y) and (a, b) = ((x - a)^2 + (y - b)62)^1/2

ACT TEST PREPARATION

The American College Testing assessment (ACT) is taken by individuals who are applying to colleges and universities. As with the SAT, the ACT is an aptitude test that allows admissions officers to judge all students by a common yardstick. They are designed to predict first-year college academic performance. Some test takers take both the SAT I and the ACT, depending on the requirements of the colleges you are applying to.

Toregisterfor the ACT visit www.act.org or contact ACT Registration, PO Box 414, Iowa City, IA 52243-0414. For Touchtone Phone reregistration contact 1 319 337 1270.

Students with disabilitiesshould contact 1 319 337 1510 for any further queries.

The ACT comprises fourmultiple-choice tests; English; math; reading and science. The total test time is two hours and 55 minutes although the whole procedure, including breaks will probably take three hours and 30 minutes.

In the US, the ACT is administered on five nationaltest dates, in October, December, February, April and June. In selected states, the ACT is also offered in late September.

The results from your ACT test will comprise 12 differentscores. The composite score is the most important, followed by four subject scores, and seven subscores. The composite score is an average of the four subject scores and it is this score that is used by colleges and universities in the admission’s process. The four subject scores and subscores might be used in the advanced placement process or for scholarships.

The ACT scaled scores range from 1 to 36 although the average test takers range from 17 to 23. To earn the average score of 20, you will need to get 53 percent of the questions correct. You can get quite a few questions wrong and still get a good score on the ACT as it is considered to be quite a tough exam.

The 1999-2000 basicregistration feeis $22.00 ($25.00 in Florida and $37.00 outside the US) which includes score reports for four college choices.

You will be advised, on your admission ticket, to arrive at the test center at 8.00am. You should ensure that youtake with you:

  • your admission ticket
  • two #2 pencils and an eraser
  • one piece of acceptable identification
  • an acceptable calculator.

You should not take:

  • a watch with an audible alarm
  • food or drink
  • scratch paper
  • notes, books, dictionaries
  • compasses, protractors, rulers, or any other aids
  • highlighters, colored pens or pencils
  • cellular telephone or pager.

Be prepared for the ACT. Test your abilities on our sample questions........

ACT ENGLISH TEST.....
ACT READING TEST......
ACT MATH TEST........
ACT SCIENCE TEST........

Try our sample ACT English questions.....

Strategies for the ACT English Test

  • memorize the directions now, this will save a lot of time on the day of your test
  • the format is the same for each question. Certain words and phrases are in parentheses and numbered. Alternatives for these sections are offered below the written passage. Choose the answer choice you think is best. There will also be a question about the section as a whole.
  • skim-read the passage before looking at the question
  • choose answers that match the style/formality of the passage
  • watch for subject-verb and noun-pronoun agreement
  • use fewer with countable nouns and less with uncountable nouns
  • make sure the phrases in parentheses begin and end with the same punctuation
  • watch out for run-on sentences
  • know the difference between it’s and its

Question:
(1) People who smoke have ten times greater chance of getting cancer than people who do not smoke. Overall, smoking causes 30 percent of all cancer deaths. The risk of getting lung cancer from cigarettes increases with the number of cigarettes you smoke, how long you have been smoking, and how deeply you inhale. Smoking also has been linked to cancers of the larynx, esophagus, pancreas, bladder, kidney, and mouth.
(2) Although stopping is better, switching to low-tar, low-nicotine cigarettes may reduce somewhat your risk of developing lung cancer if you do not inhale more deeply, take more puffs, or smoke more cigarettes than you did before you switched.
(3) However, switching to low-tar, low nicotine cigarettes will not reduce your risks of developing other cancers and diseases, such as heart disease. Animal studies also have confirmed that basic by-products (tar) produced by smoking marijuana can cause cancers.
(4) Once you quit smoking, your risks begin to decrease at once. The only way to eliminate your cancer risks due to smoking is not to smoke at all.

1. The order that would be most sensible for this passage is:
(A) No Change
(B) 2, 1, 3, 4
(C) 2, 1, 4, 3
(D) 4, 3, 2, 1

2. The passage could best be strengthened by:
(A) providing personal examples
(B) citing statistics
(C) quoting a leading authority on cancer
(D) discussing other diseases

3. The use of the second person throughout the passage is beneficial because it:
(A) is grammatically correct
(B) conceptualizes what is being discussed
(C) renders the discussion effective
(D) personalizes the discussion

Answers:
1. A
2. C
3. D

Explanation:
1. The passage begins with a general statement about smoking and cancer. It gives one alternative and its risks, and ends by reiterating the thesis.
2. Paragraph 3 could contain a direct or indirect quotation to confirm the assertions.
3. By using the second person (you, your), the author directs and personalizes the discussion for the reader.

Question:[Direction. Each underlined word or phrase may or may not contain an error. If you think the underlined portion is correct, choose A. If you think it is incorrect, choose the answer choice that corrects the error.]

    The character of Frankenstein did not originate in Hollywood. Rather, the legendary mad scientist who sought to reanimate lifeless (1)bodies were the creation of Mary Wollstonecraft Shelley. Her Frankenstein or the modern Prometheus, published in (2)1818 - is considered one of the greatest horror tales of all time. Mary Shelley conceived of her nightmarish subject in response to a wager. (3)She, and her husband, along with Lord Byron and Byron’s physician, had a contest to see who could write the best (4)“ghost story” because it was begun in such a whimsical fashion, her tale became a serious examination of the fate of an individual who decides to overstep moral and social bounds.

Question 1:
(A) No Change
(B) bodies was
(C) bodies, was
(D) bodies’ is

Question 2:
(A) No Change
(B) 1818 was
(C) 1818, is
(D) 1818. It is

Question 3:
(A) No Change
(B) She and, her husband,
(C) She, her husband too
(D) She and her husband

Question 4:
(A) No Change
(B) story." If it begun"
(C) story." although it was begun"
(D) story." Although it was begun"

Answers:
1. B
2. C
3. D
4. D

Explanations:
Question 1: The subject and the verb do not agree. The subject of this sentence is "scientist," not the closer noun, "bodies." The matching verb must be singular: "was." It should not be separated from the subject by a comma (as in C). In D the apostrophe turns "bodies" into the possessive form of the plural, when we just need the plural.
Question 2: The phrase "published in 1818" is set off by a comma on the left and a dash on the right. The comma is not underlined so we can only change the dash. Only C has a second comma to match the one before "published."
Question 3: Four people have a contest, but they are presented as a compound subject and a prepositional phrase. This phrase should be set off by commas, as it is in D.
Question 4: This is a run-on sentence that includes a non-sensical connecting word. "Because" signals a cause-and-effect relationship, but what the author wants to signal is really a contradiction: although it began as a joke, the book became a very serious project.

Try our sample ACT reading questions.....

Strategies for the ACT reading Test

  • memorize the directions to save time on test day.
  • The test is 35 minutes long and includes 40 questions. By the time you have read the passages, you will have approximately 30 seconds for each question
  • there are three different categories of reading questions: ‘specific detail’, ‘inference’, and ‘big picture’
  • there are four reading passage categories: social science, natural sciences, humanities, and prose fiction. The passages are about 1,000 words long. Each category has ten questions
  • do not get swamped by all the information in the passages and do not let the answer choices direct your thinking
  • use the line references given when referring to the text and read just before and after them

Question:

    We still have, in short, all the weapons in the arsenal of satire: the rapier of wit, the broadsword of invective, the stiletto of parody, the Damoclean swords of sarcasm and irony. Their cutting edges are bright and sharp; they glisten with barbs guaranteed to stick and stay stuck in the thickest hide, or stab the inflated Polonius in the arras. Yet though they hang well-oiled and ready to our hands, we tend to use them separately and gingerly. We are afraid of hurting someone’s feelings or of being hurt in a return bout. We tremble at the prospect of treading on someone’s corns. We are too full of the milquetoast of human kindness. We always see the Other Side of the Case, always remember that our Victim may have a Mom who loves him, always fear that we may be setting him back a few hundred hours in his psychiatric progress toward the Terrestrial City of Perfect Readjustment. Oh, yes. We poke and pry a bit. We pin an errant butterfly to a board or two. But for real lessons in the

ungentlest of the arts we must turn back to the older masters.

1. What title best expresses the main idea of the passage?
(A) Idle Weapons
(B) The Well-Adjusted Person
(C) Writing and Psychiatry
(D) Lessons and Past Masters

2. According to the passage, we avoid using satire because we:
(A) are afraid of it.
(B) do not understand it.
(C) feel inferior to older masters.
(D) are not inquisitive

3. As used in the passage, the word ‘gingerly’ most nearly means:
(A) insincerely
(B) effectively
(C) clumsily
(D) carefully

4. Which device does the author not use in the passage?
(A) Literary allusions
(B) Metaphor
(C) Anecdotes
(D) Sarcasm

Answers:
1. A
2. A
3. D
4. C

Explanation:
1. The weapons of satire are idle because the author feels that we are afraid to use them.
2. The passage states: "We are afraid of hurting someone’s feelings or of being hurt in a return bout."
3. We use the weapons carefully because we are afraid of them.
4. There are no anecdotes, or humorous examples, in the passage.

Try our sample ACT math questions.....

Strategies for the ACT math Test

  • memorize the directions to save time on test day
  • with sixty questions to answer in one hour, you will have approximately one minute per question
  • easier questions come first
  • use the diagrams given in many of the questions. The diagram will invariably tell you what you need to know
  • if you think that you know the answer, check to make sure the answer is one given. If it is not - then you have got the answer wrong
  • ask yourself if any calculations are necessary. The answer may be obvious by what the answer is definitely not.

Question:Which if the following is equivalent to (x)(x)(x)(x), for all x?
Note: The ^ symbol is used to indicate power of.

(A) 4x
(B) x^4
(C) x + 4
(D) 4x
(E) 2x^2

Answer:B

Explanation:By definition, x4 means the product of 4 factors of x so x4 is equivalent to (x)(x)(x)(x).

Question:A sweater is sold for $68 while marked at $80. What is the rate of discount?
(A) 15%
(B) 12%
(C) 17 11/17%
(D) 20%
(E) 24%

Answer:A

Explanation:The amount of discount is $12. Rate of discount is figured on the original price.

12/80 = 3/20 3/20 * 100 = 15%

Question:A vendor has 14 helium balloons for sale: 9 are yellow, 3 are red, and 2 are green. A balloon is selected at random and sold. If the balloon sold is yellow, what is the probability that the next balloon, selected at random, is also yellow?
(A) 8/13
(B) 9/13
(C) 5/14
(D) 8/14
(E) 9/14

Answer:A

Explanation:There are 14 balloons, of which 9 are yellow. If a yellow balloon is sold, there are 13 balloons left, of which 8 are yellow. The probability of selecting a yellow balloon is 8/13.

Question:Six students in a class failed algebra. This represents 16 2/3% of the class. How many students passed the course?
(A) 48
(B) 36
(C) 42
(D) 30
(E) 32

Answer:D

Explanation:


16 2/3% = 1/6
6 = 1/6x
36 = x
36 students in a class. 6 failed. 30 passed.

Question:If one leg of a right angle triangle is 8 inches long, and the other leg is 12 inches long, how many inches long is the triangle’s hypotenuse?
Note: The ^ symbol is used to indicate power of.

(A) (13)^1/4
(B) (10)^1/4
(C) (10)^1/2
(D) (5)^1/4
(E) 4

Answer:A

Explanation:By the Pythagorean theorem, the length of the hypotenuse is

(8^2)^1/2 + 12^2 =
(64)^1/2 + 144 =
(208)^1/2 =
(16)^1/2 * 13 =
(16)^1/2 * (13)^2 =
(13)^1/4

Question:A baseball team has won 40 games out of 60 played. It has 32 more games to play. How many of these must the team win to make its record 75% for the season?
(A) 26
(B) 29
(C) 28
(D) 30
(E) 32

Answer:B

Explanation:The team must win 75%, or 3/4, of the games played during the entire season. With 60 games played and 32 more to play, the team must win 3/4 of 92 games in all. 3/4 * 92 = 69. Since 40 games have already been won, the team must win 29 additional games.

Try our sample ACT science questions.....

Strategies for the ACT science Test

  • memorize the directions to save time on test day
  • the science test is 35 minutes long and consists of seven passages, each followed by between five and seven questions. You will have approximately 30 seconds per question.
  • three passages will present scientific data; three will discuss specific experiments and one passage will include two opposing views on the same subject.
  • about a third of the questions will require you to read data from graphs or tables
  • other questions require an understanding of the way experiments are designed and what they prove
  • a few questions will require you to either apply a principle logically, or to identify ways of defending or attacking a principle
  • do not spend time trying to work out which theory is right, just try to understand the different viewpoints

Question:What will the end of the universe be like? Two opposing views are presented.
Scientist 1. The universe will die out with a whimper because the energy of the big bang that created the universe will spread itself out over larger and larger regions of space. Since there is only so much energy in the universe, every cubic foot must hold, on average, less energy as time goes on. In the end everything will get so cold that all motion will stop. That will be the true end of time.

Scientist 2. The idea that the universe will spread itself too thin and freeze is seriously flawed. Such theories do not take into account the gravitational attractions of the bits of matter in the universe for each other. Gravity can act as a cosmic glue to keep the universe from dissolving in nothingness.

1. Which of the following is a major assumption of Scientist 1?
(A) All matter consists of atoms.
(B) There is a limited amount of energy in the universe.
(C) Gravity does not exist in interstellar space.
(D) The universe is contracting

2. Which of the following facts, if true, does not help Scientist 2’s hypothesis?
(A) It is shown that the galaxies are moving away from each other with a constant speed.
(B) It is shown that the galaxies are moving toward each other with a constant speed.
(C) It is shown that the galaxies are moving towards each other with a constant acceleration.
(D) It is shown that the galaxies are not moving at all relative to each other.

3. It has been calculated that if the universe has a mass greater than or equal to m, then the universe will eventually collapse on itself. Scientist 1 would be the most likely to say that the mass of the universe
(A) is equal to m.
(B) is less than or equal to m.
(C) is greater than m.
(D) is less than m.

Answers:
1. B
2. A
3. D

Explanation:
Question 1: If there is unlimited energy, then there will be more energy to replace what spreads out.
Question 2: If the galaxies are moving away from each other at constant speed there is no force pulling them back.
Question 3: Scientist 1 argues that the universe will spread out forever, so he will claim that it will not have sufficient mass to collapse. B is wrong because if the mass is equal to m the universe will collapse.

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