GRE TEST PREPARATION

That there should one man die ignorant who had capacity for knowledge, this I call a tragedy.” Thomas Carlyle.

Planning to attend graduate school? You can boost your GRE (Graduate Record Examination) scores by being fully prepared for test day. Our test preparation guide contains vital information about the new GRE CAT as well as sample questions for you to try.

Your GRE score will help the graduate admissions offices of your prospective universities decide whether or not to accept your application. Therefore, the tests are an important factor in the success of your post-graduate life, and worth preparing for as best you can.

The GRE program offers three tests: the GRE General Test, Subject Tests, and, as of October 1999, the Writing Assessment.

GRE General Test. This is an aptitude test that measures your abilities in math, English and logic. As of April 10, 1999, the GRE General Test is only available as the GRE CAT (Computer-Adaptive Test). As the paper-and-pencil test is no longer available, all the test preparation information contained here will refer to the GRE CAT.

The General Test is a requirement of almost all US colleges and universities. Some Canadian universities also require your GRE score when you apply for graduate entry.

Subject Tests. Find out from the admissions office of the colleges you are applying to if a Subject Test is required by the department you want to join. The paper-and-pencil Subject Tests measure achievement in a specific subject that assumes an undergraduate knowledge of that area. There are 14 Subject Tests to choose from, including:

• Biochemistry, Cell and Molecular Biology
• Biology
• Chemistry
• Computer Science
• Economics (not offered on the November test date)
• Engineering
• Geology (not offered on the November test date)
• History (discontinued after April 2000)
• Literature in English
• Mathematics
• Music (not offered on the December test date)
• Physics
• Psychology
• Sociology (discontinued after April 2000)

The Subject Tests are offered only on a limited number of days per year. The next available dates are December 11, 1999 and April 8, 2000. Contact www.gre.org for further information.

GRE Writing Assessment. The newest of the GRE tests (October 1999), the Writing Assessment is a computer-based test, consisting of two separate analytical tasks:

• A 45 minute "Present Your Perspective on an Issue" assignment. An opinion will be stated on an issue of general interest and you will be asked to address the issue from a perspective of your choosing.
• A 30 minute "Analyze an Argument" assignment. This requires you to critique an argument by discussing how well reasoned you found it.

This test is separate and optional to the General Test. Check with your prospective graduate schools to determine if they require this test.

The Writing Assignment is available year-round, however, you cannot take a Subject Test on the same day.

The aim of the Writing Assignment is to demonstrate your ability to think and write clearly and analytically. It is not a test of specific content knowledge, nor is it a multiple-choice test.

Commonly asked questions about the GRE:

How do I register for the GRE?

The GRE is administered by the Educational Testing Program. You can register:

By phone. Call 1-800-GRE-CALL and be sure to have either a Visa, Mastercard or American Express card handy. Registration is on a first-come-first-served basis. For disability services call 1-609-771-7780. The TTY number is 1-609-771-7714.

By mail. You can obtain a registration packet from GRE, Educational Testing Service, PO Box 6000, Princeton, NJ 08541.

Online. Online registration for the computer-based tests is not currently available. Online registration for the Subject Test is available at www.gre.org.

The GRE Information and Registration Bulletin is available to be downloaded in Acrobat PDF format from www.ets.org. You can also order one online if you would prefer to be sent one by regular mail. The Registration Bulletin is sometimes available from graduate admissions offices.

How much does the GRE cost?

The current (1999) test fees are as follows:

For citizens of the US, US Territories and Puerto Rico the General Test is $99, the Writing Assessment is $50 and each Subject Test is $130.

For citizens of all other locations the General Test is $125, the Writing Assessment is $60 and each Subject Test is $150.

Rescheduling costs an extra $40

Payment can be made by credit card (Visa, Mastercard, American Express), check (payable to ETS-GRE and drawn on a US bank), money order, bank draft, US traveler’s check, US postal money order, UNESCO coupons or Eurochecks.

A limited number of fee waivers are available to US prospective graduate students who cannot afford the GRE test fees. A fee waiver can be used for one General Test and/or one Subject Test and/or one Writing Assessment. Contact your financial aid office to see if you qualify.

When is the GRE CAT given?

The test is given year-round, during normal business hours. Weekends are also available in many locations. Although you can register as late as the day before the test, spaces do fill up so try to register a couple of weeks beforehand.

How many times should I take the GRE?

You can take the test as many times as you like but graduate school admissions offices will average your scores. Bearing this in mind, it is better to prepare thoroughly for one test and give it your best shot.

What should I take to the test center?

Plan to be at the test center at least half an hour before the test is scheduled to start. You will not be admitted if you are late and your fee will be forfeited. You must have:

• Acceptable and valid ID such as
  1. Passport
  2. Driver’s license with signature
  3. Employee ID card
  4. National identity card
  5. Military card
  6. Student ID (present a second form of ID if you use this)

• Unacceptable forms of ID include
  1. Expired passport
  2. Expired driver’s license
  3. Social Security Card
  4. Draft Classification Card
  5. Credit Cards.
• Pencils and scratch paper are provided for you and must be returned at the end of the test.
• You will not be allowed in the testing room with:
  1. Beepers
  2. Phones
  3. Calculators
  4. Pens
  5. Watch calculators
  6. Books
  7. Pamphlets
  8. Rulers
  9. Highlighter pens
  10. Stereos or radios with headphones
  11. Watch alarms
  12. Dictionaries
  13. Translators
  14. Electronic or photography devices or keyboards
• You may not eat, drink, or use tobacco during the test.
• If you requested and received an authorization voucher from ETS, you must take it with you to the test center.

What can I do if I have a disability?

ETS have a Disability Services phone number if you have special requirements. The number is 1-609-771-7780. The TTY number is 1-609-771-7714. Some accommodations that can be provided are:

• Extended testing time
• Additional breaks
• Test reader
• Recorder of answers
• Sign language interpreter

Requests for non-standard testing must include the completed, appropriate forms as well as a letter of support from a medical doctor or other qualified professional stating the nature of your disability and the modifications requested.

How does the GRE CAT work?

The GRE CAT selects questions for you based on your performance. In this way the test is tailored to your skills.

It begins with a question of average difficulty because it assumes you have an average score. The questions at the start of the test will not be easy ones. If you get the first question right, the next question will be harder. If you get it wrong, the next question will be easier.

Therefore, if you keep getting the answers right, your questions will get more difficult. Likewise, if you make some mistakes, the questions will get easier. You will receive more credit for getting a hard question right than you will for getting an easy question right. Because of this the questions at the start of the test will affect your score more than ones later on. Therefore, pay very close attention to the first few questions.

In this way the CAT presents a test that is specifically suited to your level. The overall number you get right is not as important as the level at which you start to get things wrong.

You cannot skip a question. You must answer the question on screen and confirm that you are sure of your answer before you can move on to the next question. You cannot return to a question after you have confirmed your answer.

How is the GRE CAT scored?

The three main parts of the GRE are scored independently. You will receive a verbal score, a math score, and a logic score. Each score ranges from 200 to 800. In addition to the scaled score, you will be assigned a percentile ranking, which gives the percentage of students with scores below yours.

At the end of the test you will be asked if you want your score or not. If your answer is yes, then you will see the three scores on the screen and they are entered into your record. Your prospective colleges will receive your scores around 10 to 15 days later.

If you answer no, you will not receive your score and no score will be entered into your record.

How is the test structured?

The GRE CAT has three scored sections: Verbal (English), Quantitative (math), and Analytical (logic). They can be presented in any order.

In addition to these three scored sections, there will be an ‘experimental’ section that looks like one of the others but does not count toward your score. You will not be able to tell which is the experimental section, therefore it is important to do as best you can on all the sections.

The verbal section lasts for 30 minutes and consists of 30 questions.

• 6 sentence completion
• sentence completion questions ask you to choose the best way to complete a sentence from which one or two words have been omitted. You should be able to recognize the logic, style and tone of the sentence in order to choose the answer that makes sense.
• 7 analogies
• analogy questions ask you to determine the relationship between the two words in a pair and then to recognize a similar or parallel relationship between the members of a different pair of words.
• 8 reading comprehension
• reading comprehension questions test your ability to understand what you read both in content and technique.
• 9 antonyms
• antonym questions ask you to choose the word, from five choices, that is opposite in meaning to the word you are given.

The quantitative section lasts for 45 minutes and consists of 28 questions.

• 14 quantitative comparisons
• quantitative comparison questions test your ability to reason quickly about the magnitudes of two quantities.
• 9 problem solving
• or discrete quantitative questions, are multiple choice questions that test your knowledge of basic mathematical concepts and your ability to apply that knowledge
• 5 data analysis
• data analysis questions are based on information given in tables or graphs. These questions test your ability to interpret the appropriate data for answering a question.

The analytical section lasts for 60 minutes and consists of 35 questions.

• 23 analytical reasoning
• analytical reasoning questions involve reading and analyzing puzzle statements and verbal arguments, and organizing the information into an outline to form the answer.
• 12 logical reasoning
• logical reasoning questions involve reading the question before reading the passage in order to concentrate on the argument and understand the logic of the correct answer.

Is there anything else you can tell me?

YES! Before the test begins you will be able to work through four tutorials that will instruct you on: how to use a mouse, how to select an answer, how to use the testing tools, and how to scroll. You cannot skip the tutorials.

Time is strictly limited so learn how to pace yourself. You will need to work quickly and accurately to complete each section. Getting the gist of what the question is asking is not enough as many questions hinge on subtle points. You might mis-read a question and then get the answer wrong.

Memorize the directions for each type of question. You could save yourself valuable time on test day by understanding the type of question being asked.

If, during the test, you feel as though you’ve become obsessed with a particularly difficult question, learn to cut your losses and move on. The easiest way to answer a question correctly is to know the answer.

If you are struggling to find the right answer, try to eliminate those answers you know are incorrect. Deciding between two choices is easier than deciding between five. Even if you have to guess, every answer you eliminate improves your chances of guessing correctly.

Use your scratch pad to make any workings out. You will not be allowed to take your own paper into the test center, and, because it is a computer-based test, there is no test booklet. The test center does, however, provide as much scratch paper as you need to make notes during the test.

Many graduate programs base financial aid packages, including fellowships and teaching assistantships, on the GRE. Be as well prepared as you can. Test yourself with our sample questions and see if you have any weak areas that you could improve upon. Good preparation will invariably be better than relying on pure luck!

• before you look at the choices, read the sentence and think of a word that makes sense,
• do not rush your selection. Consider all the answers before deciding,
• in double-blank sentences, go through the answers, testing the first word in each choice to eliminate those that do not fit. Then move on to the second word.
• do not overlook the reversing effect of negative words (or prefixes) like ‘not’ or ‘un-‘,
• if you do not understand the meaning of a word, try to break it down into prefixes, roots or suffixes,
• if a sentence contains a metaphor check to see whether that metaphor controls the writer’s choice of words.

Each of the following sentences has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath the sentence is five lettered sets of words. Choose the word or set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

Question:

The strangeness of the speech was magnified when he revealed that his ____________ beliefs led him to ___________ behavior.
(A) dissonant..obsolete
(B) incoherent..prodigal
(C) singular..iconoclastic
(D) vindictive..thespian
(E) recalcitrant..prenatal

Answer:C

Explanation: The clue for the two words is ‘led’. The relationship between the two words must be cause and effect. Here, the key is to find a belief in the first instance with its relevant behavior for the second.

Question:

Although the warring parties had settled a number of disputes, past experience made them __________ to express optimism that the talks would be a success.
(A) rash
(B) ambivalent
(C) scornful
(D) overjoyed
(E) reticent

Answer:E

Explanation: ‘Although’ sets up a contrast between what has occurred – success on some issues – and what can be expected to occur – success for the whole talks. Hence, the parties are reluctant to express optimism. The common word ‘reluctant’ is not offered as an answer choice, the synonym ‘reticent’ is however.

Question:

Unable to __________ his wholehearted distaste for media events and unnecessary publicity, Dean Brower continued to make __________ comments throughout the ceremony.
(A) control..garbled
(B) maintain..copious
(C) conceal..effusive
(D) disguise..caustic
(E) express..vitriolic

Answer:D

Explanation:Because the Dean was not able to disguise his distaste for the PR barrage, he failed to stifle his caustic or sarcastically biting remarks about the event. Note the cause and effect relationship between the opening phrase and the central clause of the sentence.

Strategies for Analogies

• before you look at the choices, try to state the relationship between the capitalized words in a clear sentence
• learn to recognize common types of analogies
• eliminate answer pairs that are clearly wrong
• beware of possible correct answers that appear in reverse order
• if more than one choice appears possible, analyze the words again,
• consider alternative meanings of words, as well as alternative parts of speech
• beware of obvious answers ‘eye-catchers’, they may be there to mislead you

In each of the following questions, a related pair of words or phrases is followed by five lettered pairs of words or phrases. Select the lettered pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.

Question:
BACCHUS:DRINK
(A) Orpheus:Eurydice
(B) Amazon:ruler
(C) Diana:hunt
(D) Zeus:Olympus
(E) Plato:Aristotle

Answer:C

Explanation:Bacchus is the god of wine; Diana is the goddess of the hunt. This is a worker and creation relationship.

Question:
EXCERPT:NOVEL
(A) critique:play
(B) review:manuscript
(C) swatch:cloth
(D) foreword:preface
(E) recital:performance

Answer:C

Explanation:Watch out for the eye-catcher in the answer choices! Manuscript might remind you of novel, however, a review is not part of a manuscript. Whereas, an excerpt is part of a novel and a swatch is part of a piece of cloth.

Question:
INELUCTABLE:AVOID
(A) ineffable:utter
(B) impalpable:desire
(C) impermeable:endure
(D) irascible:provoke
(E) irreconcilable:estrange

Answer:A

Explanation:Something ineluctable (avoidable) is impossible to avoid. Something ineffable (inexpressible) is impossible to utter.

Strategies for Reading Comprehension

• first read the passage, then read the questions
• base your answers to the question solely on what is stated or implied in the passage
• first and last sentences in each paragraph are critical
• learn to spot the major reading question types
• on the title questions, do not choose those that are too broad or too specific
• when asked to make inferences, base your answers on what the passage implies, not what it states directly.
• when asked to give the meaning of an unfamiliar word, look for nearby context clues

Read the passage then answer the questions:

    A few species demonstrate conditions which are neither complete hibernation nor aestivation. Instead of going into a long ‘sleep’ during the most adverse season, they become torpid for a few hours each day. This kind of behavior is known in other animals – bats become torpid during daytime, and hummingbirds at night. The first time I appreciated this phenomenon was while working with fat mice (Steatomys) in Africa. These mice, incidentally, have a most appropriate name, for their bodies are so full of fat they resemble little furry balls. Fat storage as a method of survival has rebounded to some extent as far as the fat mice are concerned. They are regarded as a succulent delicacy by many African tribes who hunt them with great tenacity; when captured, the mice are skewered and fried in their own fat. A captive fat mouse was once kept without food or water for thirty-six days; at the end of that time it had lost one-third of its body weight but appeared quite healthy. During the dry season, some captives spent the day in such a deep state of torpor that they could be roughly handled without waking. The body temperature was a couple of degrees above room temperature and the respiration was most irregular, several short pants being followed by a pause of up to three minutes. Just before dusk the mice woke up of their own accord and respired normally. In this case the torpid state was not induced by shortage of food or abnormal temperatures. The forest dormouse of southern Asia and Europe also undergoes periods of torpidity during the day; this species has been recorded as having pauses of up to seventeen minutes between breaths. There is also a record of a leaf-eared mouse of the Peruvian desert which became torpid under severe conditions.

Question 1:
The primary focus of the passage is on
(A) the inhumane treatment of laboratory specimens
(B) irregularities of respiration in mammals
(C) conditions that induce rodents to hibernate
(D) species that exhibit brief periods of dormancy
(E) the similarities among rodent species

Question 2:
It can be inferred from the passage that fat storage as a method of survival ‘has rebounded’ for fat mice for what reason?
(A) It has enabled them to go without food and water for long periods of time.
(B) It has made them particularly tempting to human predators.
(C) It has made them so spherical they cannot move easily.
(D) It has caused them to adopt abnormal patterns of sleep.
(E) It has made them susceptible to abnormal temperatures.

Question 3:
This passage would most likely appear in which of the following types of publications?
(A) A geographical atlas.
(B) A history of African exploration
(C) A textbook on rodent biology
(D) A guide to the care of laboratory animals
(E) A general-interest periodical

Question 4:
It can be inferred that in the paragraph preceding this passage the author most likely discussed
(A) his initial journey to Africa
(B) the problem caused by sleep deprivation
(C) other types of dormant states
(D) the physical appearance of rodents
(E) methods for measuring rodent respiration

Answers:
Question 1: D
Question 2: B
Question 3: C
Question 4: C

Explanations:

Question 1: The author is discussing the behavior of various rodents that become dormant or inactive for brief periods of time.

Question 2: Fat storage has worked against the fat mouse’s survival because it has led to the mice being considered a succulent delicacy by African hunters.

Question 3: This detailed account of a particular aspect of rodent behavior clearly belongs in a textbook on rodent biology

Question 4: In the opening sentence the author refers to hibernation and aestivation, two other types of dormant states. This suggests he has just been discussing these dormant states in some detail.

Strategies for Antonyms

• think of a context for the word you are given
• think of an antonym for that word before you look at the answer choices
• then read all the choices before you decide which is best
• consider alternative or secondary meanings of words. Many words have a verb and a noun meaning.
• Remember that you are looking for the opposite in meaning. Do not get caught out by synonyms.

Each question below consists of a word printed in capital letters, followed by five lettered words or phrases. Choose the lettered word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters.

Question:
SUFFRAGE:
(A) absence of charity
(B) absence of franchise
(C) absence of pain
(D) absence of success
(E) absence of malice

Answer:B

Explanation:Suffrage comes from the verb ‘suffer’. The opposite of suffering would be an absence of pain. However, that connection would be easy, too obvious for this hard problem. “Absence of pain’ is a trap. In fact, suffrage means ‘the right to vote’. Franchise is a synonym for vote, hence, the answer is B.

Question:
INSIPIDNESS:
(A) wisdom
(B) cowardice
(C) lividity
(D) savoriness
(E) tentativeness

Answer:D

Explanation:The opposite of insipidness or lack of flavor is savoriness, the quality of being flavorsome. Think of the insipidness of overcooked, boiled cabbage.

Question:
CONDIGN:
(A) intentional
(B) unbiased
(C) obdurate
(D) inevitable
(E) unmerited

Answer:E

Explanation:The opposite of condign or due (as in deserved) is unmerited.

Question:
DISLODGE:
(A) restore
(B) secure
(C) wander
(D) transport
(E) anticipate

Answer:B

Explanation:The opposite of dislodge, or cause something to shift, is to secure, or fasten it in place.

GRE VOCABULARY BUILDER

The best way to develop a powerful vocabulary is to read extensively and well. However, it is possible to fine-tune your vocabulary by using flashcards. Here is a list of some of the most commonly used words found in GRE verbal tests.
Aberrant: abnormal or deviant
Admonish: warn; reprove
Alacrity: cheerful promptness; eagerness
Aver: state confidently
Baleful: deadly; having a malign influence; ominous
Beneficent: kindly; doing good
Bombastic: pompous; using inflated language
Burgeon: grow forth; send out buds
Cacophonous: discordant; inharmonious
Capricious: unpredictable; fickle
Cogent: convincing
Complaisant: trying to please; obliging
Daunt: intimidate; frighten
Deference: courteous regard for another’s wish
Diffidence: shyness
Dogmatic: opinionated; arbitrary; doctrinal
Ebullient: showing excitement; overflowing with enthusiasm
Elegy: poem or song expressing lamentation
Enervate: weaken
Engender: cause; produce
Fatuous: foolish; inane
Flout: reject; mock
Foment: stir up; instigate
Futile: useless; hopeless; ineffectual
Gainsay: deny
Goad: urge on
Grandiloquent: pompous; bombastic; using high-sounding language
Gullible: easily deceived
Harangue: long, passionate and vehement speech
Homogeneous: of the same kind
Hyperbole: exaggeration; overstatement
Iconoclastic: attacking cherished traditions
Immutable: unchangeable
Incongruity: lack of harmony; absurdity
Ingenuous: naïve and trusting; young; unsophisticated
Judicious: sound in judgement; wise
Jurisprudence: science of law
Knoll: little, round hill
Kudos: honor; glory; praise
Laconic: brief and to the point
Levee: earthen or stone embankment to prevent flooding
Loquacious: talkative
Lucid: easily understood; clear; intelligible
Malingerer: one who feigns illness to escape duty
Mendacious: lying; habitually dishonest
Morose: ill-humored; sullen; melancholy
Mundane: worldly as opposed to spiritual; everyday
Negate: cancel out; nullify; deny
Neophyte: recent convert; beginner
Obdurate: stubborn
Obsequious: slavishly attentive; servile; sycophantic
Onerous: burdensome
Oscillate: vibrate pendulum-like; waver
Partisan: one-sided; prejudiced; committed to a party
Pathological: pertaining to disease
Perfunctory: superficial; not thorough; lacking interest or care
Problematic: doubtful; unsettled; questionable
Qualified: limited; restricted
Quibble: minor objection or complaint
Quiescent: at rest; dormant; temporarily inactive
Recondite: abstruse; profound; secret
Refute: disprove
Repudiate: disown; disavow
Reverent: respectful; worshipful
Sage: person celebrated for wisdom
Solicitous: worried; concerned
Striated: marked with parallel bands; grooved
Supposition: hypothesis; surmise
Tenuous: thin; slim; rare
Torpor: lethargy; sluggishness; dormancy
Tractable: docile; easily managed
Truculence: aggressiveness; ferocity
Ubiquitous: being everywhere; omnipresent
Vacillate: waver; fluctuate
Verbose: wordy
Vituperative: abusive; scolding
Volatile: changeable; explosive; evaporating rapidly
Warranted: justified; authorized
Welter: turmoil; bewildering jumble
Zealot: fanatic; person who shows excessive zeal

Try our sample quantitative questions

Strategies for Quantitative Comparisons

• memorize the directions now to save time during the test
• try and avoid calculating the answers, just compare the two figures given
• when the quantities in each column are fixed numbers, avoid answer ‘D’ “The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.”
• Use your scratch paper to make rough sketches or diagrams

Each of the following questions consists of two quantities, one is Column A and one in Column B. You are to compare the two quantities and choose
(A) if the quantity in Column A is greater;
(B) if the quantity in Column B is greater;
(C) if the two quantities are equal
(D) if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Question:
Note: The < symbol is used to indicate an angle.

In triangle ABC, m<A less than m<B, and m<C=60?
Column A       Column B
Side CB       Side AB

Answer:A

Explanation: Since the measure of <C is 60, the measure of <A + <B is 120, and therefore the measure of <A is more than ½ of 120, since A is larger than B. Side CB lies opposite the angle with a measure of more than 60 and is therefore larger than side AB, which lies opposite the angle with a measure of 60.

Question:
Column A       Column B
2(x + y)       2xy

Answer: D

Explanation: If x = y = 2, then 2(x + y) = 2(2 + 2) = 8 and 2xy = 2(2)(2) = 8. In this case, the columns are equal. For all other choices of x and y, Column B is greater. Hence, the answer cannot be determined by the information given.

Strategies for Problem Solving (or Discrete Quantitative) Questions

• time is in short supply so avoid lengthy computations and look for the short-cut to the correct answer
• sketch diagrams on your scratch pad in order to visualize a problem and add any extra lengths, angles or areas
• if you cannot answer a question, start at an answer choice and work your way back to the question
• look at the answer choices after reading the question – the correct answer might become apparent

Each of the following questions have five answer choices. For each of the questions, select the best answer choice given.

Question:
If the length and width of a rectangle are both tripled, the ratio of the area of the original rectangle to the area of the enlarged rectangle is:
(A) 1:3
(B) 1:6
(C) 1:9
(D) 1:8
(E) 2:9

Answer: C

Explanation: Ratio = original rectangle/enlarged rectangle = 1LW/9LW = 1/9 = 1:9

Question:
At a luncheon table where 12 men are seated, one-half of the men belong to Club A, one-third belong to Club B, and one-fourth belong to both clubs. How many men belong to neither?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
(E) 8

Answer: C

Explanation: Half the 12 (6) belong to Club A, 3 of these also belong to A and B. One third (4) belong to Club B, of these, 3 also belong to Club A. Thus, 7 men are accounted for as club members and 5 men belong to neither club.

Question:
A rectangular field 100 feet long is twice as long as it is wide. The number of feet of fencing needed to enclose the field is
(A) 150
(B) 300
(C) 400
(D) 500
(E) 600

Answer:B

Explanation: Since the length is twice the width, then the width is 50. Perimeter = 50 + 50 + 100 + 100 = 300 feet.

Strategies for Data Analysis

• read the information before reading the question
• use only the information given
• avoid long calculations and make sure your answer is reasonable
• try to visualize the question before answering
• break down long questions into smaller, manageable parts

Each of the following has five answer choices. For each of these questions, select the best of the answer choices given.

The following three questions refer to this chart:
NUTRITIONAL VALUE OF SOME DAIRY PRODUCTS.

Question:
How many tablespoons of light cream have the same number of calories as 8 ounces of buttermilk?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6

Answer: B

Explanation: 8 ounces buttermilk = 90 calories, 2 tablespoons light cream = 60 calories, 3 tablespoons light cream = 90 calories.

Question:
How many calories of cream cheese would there be in the amount needed to furnish the same number of grams of protein as there are in 4 ounces of chocolate milk?
(A) 55
(B) 95
(C) 110
(D) 220
(E) 330

Answer: D

Explanation: 4 ounces chocolate milk = 4 grams of protein, 4 tablespoons cream cheese = 4 grams of protein, 4 tablespoons cream cheese = 220 calories

Question:
Which of the following has the greatest number of calories per pound?
(A) whole milk
(B) buttermilk
(C) Swiss cheese
(D) cottage cheese
(E) chocolate milk

Answer: C

Explanation: whole milk = 320 calories, buttermilk = 180 calories, Swiss cheese = 1760 cheese, cottage cheese = 480 calories, chocolate milk = 380 calories

Try our sample analytical questions

Strategies for Analytical Reasoning

• Simplify the information
• Be aware of key words that might limit the situation
• Eliminate incorrect answer choices
• Use the scratch paper to make diagrams or tables
• Do not use information specific to one question in a subsequent question
• Do not make assumptions. Use the information given

Each of the following questions is based on a passage or set of conditions. In answering some of the questions, it may be useful to draw a rough diagram. For each question, select the best answer choice given.

Six different runners - Andy, Brett, Chris, Dale, Eric, and Fred - compete in a race. The following statements are all true about the race results:

Brett finished either immediately before or immediately after Dale.
Eric finished third
Andy did not finish last.
There were no ties.

Question: Which of the following is a possible order of the racers at the finish line, from first place to last place?
(A) Andy, Eric, Brett, Dale, Fred, Chris
(B) Brett, Dale, Eric, Fred, Chris, Andy
(C) Dale, Andy, Eric, Brett, Chris, Fred
(D) Fred, Andy, Eric, Dale, Chris, Brett
(E) Chris, Andy, Eric, Fred, Dale, Brett

Answer: E

Explanation: Prepare a diagram with the information you are given.
1
2
3 Eric
4
5
6 (not Andy)

Brett/Dale or Dale/Brett must finish together therefore, they must finish either 1st and 2nd, 4th and 5th, or 5th and 6th.

Check each answer choice against the rules provided until you find a conflict with the rules. Answer A is incorrect because Eric must finish 3rd. Answer B is incorrect because Andy cannot finish last. Answers C and D are incorrect because Dale and Brett must finish adjacent to each other. Answer E is the only one that conforms to all the rules.

Question:
All of the following are possible orders of the racers at the finish line, from first place to last place, EXCEPT:
(A) Andy, Brett, Dale, Eric, Chris, Fred
(B) Chris, Fred, Eric, Andy, Dale, Brett
(C) Fred, Andy, Eric, Brett, Dale, Chris
(D) Dale, Brett, Eric, Fred, Andy, Chris
(E) Brett, Dale, Eric, Chris, Andy, Fred

Answer: A

Explanation: The same rules apply here as for the preceding question. Eric still has to finish third and A is the only option where he does not.

Question:
If Eric finishes before Brett, which of the following must be false?
(A) Andy finishes 1st
(B) Andy finishes 5th
(C) Chris finishes 2nd
(D) Fred finishes 2nd
(E) Chris finishes 6th

Answer: B

Explanation: If Eric, in 3rd place, finishes before Brett, then Brett must be either 4th, 5th, or 6th. Because Brett and Dale must finish in adjacent positions, then Dale must be 5th if Brett is 4th, Dale may be 4th or 6th if Brett is 5th, and Dale must be 5th if Brett is 6th. From this analysis, it is clear that the 5th position must be taken by either Brett or Dale, then answer B must be false and is therefore the correct answer. Each of the others could be true.

Five executives of a European corporation are in Madrid for a conference.
Mr A can speak Spanish and Italian
Mrs B can speak Spanish and English
Miss C can speak English and Italian
Ms D can speak French and Spanish
Rev. E from Italy, can also speak French

Question:
Which of the following can act as interpreter when Miss C and Ms D wish to confer?
(A) Only Mr A
(B) Only Mrs B
(C) Only Rev E
(D) Mr A or Mrs B
(E) Any of the other three executives.

Answer: E

Explanation: When C and D speak they can use English, Italian, French and Spanish between them. Mr A speaks Spanish and Italian. Mrs B speaks English and Spanish. Rev E speaks French and Italian.

Question:
If a sixth executive is brought in, to be understood by the maximum number of the original five, he should be fluent in
(A) English and French
(B) Italian and English
(C) French and Italian
(D) Italian and Spanish
(E) English and Spanish

Answer: D

Explanation: Three executives speak Spanish (A, B, and D). The other two (C and E) speak Italian.

Strategies for Logical Reasoning

• Look at the question before you look at the argument
• Pay attention to signal words
• Eliminate incorrect answers
• Look out for false assumptions

Most persons who oppose gun control are conservatives; therefore, since Lindsay favors gun control, she is probably not a conservative.

Question:
The above argument most resembles which of the following?
(A) Most sociology professors are liberals; therefore Dr Wood, who is a liberal, is probably a sociology professor.
(B) Most corporation presidents own country homes; if Mr Beacham is a corporation president, he may or may not have a country home.
(C) Few major publishing firms publish much poetry; since Snore Press publishes only poetry, it is probably not a major publishing firm.
(D) Most sports cars are extremely expensive; since the new Desiree Panther is not a sports car, it is probably inexpensive.
(E) Most desert plants are cacti; therefore the cholla, a desert plant, is probably a cactus.

Answer: D

Explanation: The original argument states that most X (opponents of gun control) are Y (conservatives); therefore, someone who is not X is probably not Y. The flaw in this reasoning is that many people other than X may also be Y. Choice D makes the same error: most X (sports cars) are Y. But many kinds of cars other than other than sports cars may be expensive. The other arguments have logical structures different from that of the original argument. Choice A wrongly argues: most X are Y, therefore a Y is probably X.

Mike: I wish you wouldn’t drink so much beer. It’s bad for your health
Marie: How can you say that? I do not weigh a pound more than I did a year ago.

Question:
Which of the following responses would most strengthen Mike’s argument?
(A) You weight ten pounds more than you did six years ago.
(B) Most people who drink a lot of beer do put on weight.
(C) If you keep drinking so much beer, you will soon put on weight.
(D) Putting on weight is not the only harmful effect of drinking beer.
(E) You can put on weight in other ways than by drinking beer.

Answer: D

Explanation: Marie assumes the only harmful effect of beer drinking is gaining weight. The best way to strengthen Mike’s argument and refute Marie’s is to dispute this assumption. D points out the obvious and explodes her argument. The other choices all fail to challenge Marie’s illogical reasoning.

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